This page was exported from Exam for engine [ http://blog.test4engine.com ] Export date:Mon Nov 18 2:42:16 2024 / +0000 GMT ___________________________________________________ Title: [Q12-Q31] 2024 Reliable Study Materials & Testing Engine for CAS-005 Exam Success! --------------------------------------------------- 2024 Reliable Study Materials & Testing Engine for CAS-005 Exam Success! Validate your Skills with Updated CAS-005 Exam Questions & Answers and Test Engine NO.12 A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution?  Limiting the tool to a specific coding language and tuning the rule set  Configuring branch protection rules and dependency checks  Using an application vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production  Performing updates on code libraries before code development To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool’s checks are appropriate for the application’s context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results.References:* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments.* “Secure Coding: Principles and Practices” by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives.* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.NO.13 An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations.INSTRUCTIONSReview the following scenarios and instructions. Match each relevant finding to the affected host.After associating scenario 3 with the appropriate host(s), click the host to select the appropriate corrective action for that finding.Each finding may be used more than once.If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simul-ation, please click the Reset All button. Explanation:A computer screen shot of a diagram Description automatically generatedA screenshot of a computer error Description automatically generatedNO.14 A company isolated its OT systems from other areas of the corporate network These systems are required to report usage information over the internet to the vendor Which oi the following b*st reduces the risk of compromise or sabotage’ (Select two).  Implementing allow lists  Monitoring network behavior  Encrypting data at rest  Performing boot Integrity checks  Executing daily health checks  Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN * A. Implementing allow lists: Allow lists (whitelisting) restrict network communication to only authorized devices and applications, significantly reducing the attack surface by ensuring that only pre-approved traffic is permitted.* F. Implementing a site-to-site IPSec VPN: A site-to-site VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel for data transmission between the OT systems and the vendor, protecting the data from interception and tampering during transit.Other options:* B. Monitoring network behavior: While useful for detecting anomalies, it does not proactively reduce the risk of compromise or sabotage.* C. Encrypting data at rest: Important for protecting data stored on devices, but does not address network communication risks.* D. Performing boot integrity checks: Ensures the integrity of the system at startup but does not protect ongoing network communications.* E. Executing daily health checks: Useful for maintaining system health but does not directly reduce the risk of network-based compromise or sabotage.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide* NIST SP 800-82, “Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security”* “Industrial Network Security” by Eric D. Knapp and Joel Thomas LangillNO.15 A security configure is building a solution to disable weak CBC configuration for remote access connections lo Linux systems. Which of the following should the security engineer modify?  The /etc/openssl.conf file, updating the virtual site parameter  The /etc/nsswith.conf file, updating the name server  The /etc/hosts file, updating the IP parameter  The /etc/etc/sshd, configure file updating the ciphers The sshd_config file is the main configuration file for the OpenSSH server. To disable weak CBC (Cipher Block Chaining) ciphers for SSH connections, the security engineer should modify the sshd_config file to update the list of allowed ciphers. This file typically contains settings for the SSH daemon, including which encryption algorithms are allowed.By editing the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file and updating the Ciphers directive, weak ciphers can be removed, and only strong ciphers can be allowed. This change ensures that the SSH server does not use insecure encryption methods.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide* OpenSSH manual pages (man sshd_config)* CIS Benchmarks for LinuxNO.16 A security analyst is reviewing the following authentication logs:Which of the following should the analyst do first?  Disable User2’s account  Disable User12’s account  Disable User8’s account  Disable User1’s account Based on the provided authentication logs, we observe that User1’s account experienced multiple failed login attempts within a very short time span (at 8:01:23 AM on 12/15). This pattern indicates a potential brute-force attack or an attempt to gain unauthorized access. Here’s a breakdown of why disabling User1’s account is the appropriate first step:* Failed Login Attempts: The logs show that User1 had four consecutive failed login attempts:* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM* VM01 at 8:01:23 AM* VM08 at 8:01:23 AM* Security Protocols and Best Practices: According to CompTIA Security+ guidelines, multiple failed login attempts within a short timeframe should trigger an immediate response to prevent further potential unauthorized access attempts. This typically involves temporarily disabling the account to stop ongoing brute-force attacks.* Account Lockout Policy: Implementing an account lockout policy is a standard practice to thwart brute-force attacks. Disabling User1’s account will align with these best practices and prevent further failed attempts, which might lead to successful unauthorized access if not addressed.* References:* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl* CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives* NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity GuidelinesBy addressing User1’s account first, we effectively mitigate the immediate threat of a brute-force attack, ensuring that further investigation can be conducted without the risk of unauthorized access continuing during the investigation period.NO.17 An organization is planning for disaster recovery and continuity of operations, and has noted the following relevant findings:1. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause an evacuation. Users are unable to log into the domain from-their workstations after relocating to Site B.2. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause the pump room at Site B to become inoperable.3. A natural disaster may disrupt operations at Site A, which would then cause unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping.INSTRUCTIONSMatch each relevant finding to the affected host by clicking on the host name and selecting the appropriate number.For findings 1 and 2, select the items that should be replicated to Site B. For finding 3, select the item requiring configuration changes, then select the appropriate corrective action from the drop-down menu. See the complete solution below in Explanation:Explanation:Matching Relevant Findings to the Affected Hosts:* Finding 1:* Affected Host: DNS* Reason: Users are unable to log into the domain from their workstations after relocating to Site B, which implies a failure in domain name services that are critical for user authentication and domain login.* Finding 2:* Affected Host: Pumps* Reason: The pump room at Site B becoming inoperable directly points to the critical infrastructure components associated with pumping operations.* Finding 3:* Affected Host: VPN Concentrator* Reason: Unreliable internet connectivity at Site B due to route flapping indicates issues with network routing, which is often managed by VPN concentrators that handle site-to-site* connectivity.Corrective Actions for Finding 3:* Finding 3 Corrective Action:* Action: Modify the BGP configuration* Reason: Route flapping is often related to issues with Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) configurations. Adjusting BGP settings can stabilize routes and improve internet connectivity reliability.* Replication to Site B for Finding 1:* Affected Host: DNS* Explanation: Domain Name System (DNS) services are essential for translating domain names into IP addresses, allowing users to log into the network. Replicating DNS services ensures that even if Site A is disrupted, users at Site B can still authenticate and access necessary resources.* Replication to Site B for Finding 2:* Affected Host: Pumps* Explanation: The operation of the pump room is crucial for maintaining various functions within the infrastructure. Replicating the control systems and configurations for the pumps at Site B ensures that operations can continue smoothly even if Site A is affected.* Configuration Changes for Finding 3:* Affected Host: VPN Concentrator* Explanation: Route flapping is a situation where routes become unstable, causing frequent changes in the best path for data to travel. This instability can be mitigated by modifying BGP configurations to ensure more stable routing. VPN concentrators, which manage connections between sites, are typically configured with BGP for optimal routing.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: This guide provides detailed information on disaster recovery and continuity of operations, emphasizing the importance of replicating critical services and making necessary configuration changes to ensure seamless operation during disruptions.* CompTIA Security+ Exam Objectives: These objectives highlight key areas in disaster recovery planning, including the replication of critical services and network configuration adjustments.* Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Planning (DRBCP): This resource outlines best practices for ensuring that operations can continue at an alternate site during a disaster, including the replication of essential services and network stability measures.By ensuring that critical services like DNS and control systems for pumps are replicated at the alternate site, and by addressing network routing issues through proper BGP configuration, the organization can maintain operational continuity and minimize the impact of natural disasters on their operations.NO.18 Which of the following best explains the importance of determining organization risk appetite when operating with a constrained budget?  Risk appetite directly impacts acceptance of high-impact low-likelihood events.  Organizational risk appetite varies from organization to organization  Budgetary pressure drives risk mitigation planning in all companies  Risk appetite directly influences which breaches are disclosed publicly Risk appetite is the amount of risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives. When operating with a constrained budget, understanding the organization’s risk appetite is crucial because:* It helps prioritize security investments based on the level of risk the organization is willing to tolerate.* High-impact, low-likelihood events may be deemed acceptable if they fall within the organization’s risk appetite, allowing for budget allocation to other critical areas.* Properly understanding and defining risk appetite ensures that limited resources are used effectively to manage risks that align with the organization’s strategic goals.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide* NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF) guidelines* ISO 31000, “Risk Management – Guidelines”NO.19 A company is having issues with its vulnerability management program New devices/lPs are added and dropped regularly, making the vulnerability report inconsistent Which of the following actions should the company lake to most likely improve the vulnerability management process’  Request a weekly report with all new assets deployed and decommissioned  Extend the DHCP lease lime to allow the devices to remain with the same address for a longer period.  Implement a shadow IT detection process to avoid rogue devices on the network  Perform regular discovery scanning throughout the 11 landscape using the vulnerability management tool To improve the vulnerability management process in an environment where new devices/IPs are added and dropped regularly, the company should perform regular discovery scanning throughout the IT landscape using the vulnerability management tool. Here’s why:* Accurate Asset Inventory: Regular discovery scans help maintain an up-to-date inventory of all assets, ensuring that the vulnerability management process includes all relevant devices and IPs.* Consistency in Reporting: By continuously discovering and scanning new and existing assets, the company can generate consistent and comprehensive vulnerability reports that reflect the current state of the network.* Proactive Management: Regular scans enable the organization to proactively identify and address vulnerabilities on new and existing assets, reducing the window of exposure to potential threats.* References:* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl* NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies* CIS Controls: Control 1 – Inventory and Control of Hardware AssetsNO.20 A security analyst wants to use lessons learned from a poor incident response to reduce dwell lime in the future The analyst is using the following data pointsWhich of the following would the analyst most likely recommend?  Adjusting the SIEM to alert on attempts to visit phishing sites  Allowing TRACE method traffic to enable better log correlation  Enabling alerting on all suspicious administrator behavior  utilizing allow lists on the WAF for all users using GFT methods In the context of improving incident response and reducing dwell time, the security analyst needs to focus on proactive measures that can quickly detect and alert on potential security breaches. Here’s a detailed analysis of the options provided:A: Adjusting the SIEM to alert on attempts to visit phishing sites: While this is a useful measure to prevent phishing attacks, it primarily addresses external threats and doesn’t directly impact dwell time reduction, which focuses on the time a threat remains undetected within a network.B: Allowing TRACE method traffic to enable better log correlation: The TRACE method in HTTP is used for debugging purposes, but enabling it can introduce security vulnerabilities. It’s not typically recommended for enhancing security monitoring or incident response.C: Enabling alerting on all suspicious administrator behavior: This option directly targets the potential misuse of administrator accounts, which are often high-value targets for attackers. By monitoring and alerting on suspicious activities from admin accounts, the organization can quickly identify and respond to potential breaches, thereby reducing dwell time significantly. Suspicious behavior could include unusual login times, access to sensitive data not usually accessed by the admin, or any deviation from normal behavior patterns.This proactive monitoring is crucial for quick detection and response, aligning well with best practices in incident response.D: Utilizing allow lists on the WAF for all users using GET methods: This measure is aimed at restricting access based on allowed lists, which can be effective in preventing unauthorized access but doesn’t specifically address the need for quick detection and response to internal threats.References:* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of monitoring and alerting on admin activities as part of a robust incident response plan.* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, “Computer Security Incident Handling Guide”: Highlights best practices for incident response, including the importance of detecting and responding to suspicious activities quickly.* “Incident Response & Computer Forensics” by Jason T. Luttgens, Matthew Pepe, and Kevin Mandia:Discusses techniques for reducing dwell time through effective monitoring and alerting mechanisms, particularly focusing on privileged account activities.By focusing on enabling alerting for suspicious administrator behavior, the security analyst addresses a critical area that can help reduce the time a threat goes undetected, thereby improving the overall security posture of the organization.Top of FormBottom of FormNO.21 An organization is required to* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner* Provide transparency.* Comply with regulatory requirementsThe organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?  Outsourcing the handling of necessary regulatory filing to an external consultant  Integrating automated response mechanisms into the data subject access request process  Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel  Conducting lessons-learned activities and integrating observations into the crisis management plan Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.Why Communication Templates?* Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.* Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.* Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization’s credibility.* Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:* A. Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.* B. Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.* D. Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.References:* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, “Computer Security Incident Handling Guide”* ISO/IEC 27002:2013, “Information technology – Security techniques – Code of practice for information security controls”NO.22 A security analyst needs to ensure email domains that send phishing attempts without previous communications are not delivered to mailboxes The following email headers are being reviewedWhich of the following is the best action for the security analyst to take?  Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain.  Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator  Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header  Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages In reviewing email headers and determining actions to mitigate phishing attempts, the security analyst should focus on patterns of suspicious behavior and the reputation of the sending domains. Here’s the analysis of the options provided:A; Block messages from hr-saas.com because it is not a recognized domain: Blocking a domain solely because it is not recognized can lead to legitimate emails being missed. Recognition alone should not be the criterion for blocking.B: Reroute all messages with unusual security warning notices to the IT administrator: While rerouting suspicious messages can be a good practice, it is not specific to the domain sending repeated suspicious messages.C: Quarantine all messages with sales-mail.com in the email header: Quarantining messages based on the presence of a specific domain in the email header can be too broad and may capture legitimate emails.D: Block vendor com for repeated attempts to send suspicious messages: This option is the most appropriate because it targets a domain that has shown a pattern of sending suspicious messages. Blocking a domain that repeatedly sends phishing attempts without previous communications helps in preventing future attempts from the same source and aligns with the goal of mitigating phishing risks.References:* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Details best practices for handling phishing attempts, including blocking domains with repeated suspicious activity.* NIST Special Publication 800-45 Version 2, “Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security”: Provides guidelines on email security, including the management of suspicious email domains.* “Phishing and Countermeasures: Understanding the Increasing Problem of Electronic Identity Theft” by Markus Jakobsson and Steven Myers: Discusses effective measures to counter phishing attempts, including blocking persistent offenders.By blocking the domain that has consistently attempted to send suspicious messages, the security analyst can effectively reduce the risk of phishing attacks.NO.23 A company receives reports about misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in a third-party hardware device that is part of its released products. Which of the following solutions is the best way for the company to identify possible issues at an earlier stage?  Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers  Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line  Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance  Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program Addressing misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in third-party hardware requires a comprehensive approach to manage risks throughout the supply chain. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management (SCRM) program is the most effective solution as it encompasses the following:* Holistic Approach: SCRM considers the entire lifecycle of the product, from initial design through to delivery and deployment. This ensures that risks are identified and managed at every stage.* Vendor Management: It includes thorough vetting of suppliers and ongoing assessments of their security practices, which can identify and mitigate vulnerabilities early.* Regular Audits and Assessments: A robust SCRM program involves regular audits and assessments, both internally and with suppliers, to ensure compliance with security standards and best practices.* Collaboration and Communication: Ensures that there is effective communication and collaboration between the company and its suppliers, leading to faster identification and resolution of issues.Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same comprehensive risk management:* A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers: While useful, this is reactive and only addresses issues after they have been delivered.* B. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line: This can identify vulnerabilities but is not as comprehensive as a full SCRM program.* C. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the vendor appliance: This is important but only covers the integration phase, not the entire supply chain.References:* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide* NIST Special Publication 800-161, “Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for Federal Information Systems and Organizations”* ISO/IEC 27036-1:2014, “Information technology – Security techniques – Information security for supplier relationships”NO.24 After remote desktop capabilities were deployed in the environment, various vulnerabilities were noticed.* Exfiltration of intellectual property* Unencrypted files* Weak user passwordsWhich of the following is the best way to mitigate these vulnerabilities? (Select two).  Implementing data loss prevention  Deploying file integrity monitoring  Restricting access to critical file services only  Deploying directory-based group policies  Enabling modem authentication that supports MFA  Implementing a version control system  Implementing a CMDB platform To mitigate the identified vulnerabilities, the following solutions are most appropriate:* A. Implementing data loss prevention (DLP): DLP solutions help prevent the unauthorized transfer of data outside the organization. This directly addresses the exfiltration of intellectual property by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data transfers.* E. Enabling modern authentication that supports Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA): This significantly enhances security by requiring additional verification methods beyond just passwords. It addresses the issue of weak user passwords by making it much harder for unauthorized users to gain access, even if they obtain the password.Other options, while useful in specific contexts, do not address all the vulnerabilities mentioned:* B. Deploying file integrity monitoring helps detect changes to files but does not prevent data exfiltration or address weak passwords.* C. Restricting access to critical file services improves security but is not comprehensive enough to mitigate all identified vulnerabilities.* D. Deploying directory-based group policies can enforce security policies but might not directly prevent data exfiltration or ensure strong authentication.* F. Implementing a version control system helps manage changes to files but is not a security measure for preventing the identified vulnerabilities.* G. Implementing a CMDB platform (Configuration Management Database) helps manage IT assets but does not address the specific security issues mentioned.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide* NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5, “Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations”* CIS Controls, “Control 13: Data Protection” and “Control 16: Account Monitoring and Control”NO.25 A security architect for a global organization with a distributed workforce recently received funding lo deploy a CASB solution Which of the following most likely explains the choice to use a proxy-based CASB?  The capability to block unapproved applications and services is possible  Privacy compliance obligations are bypassed when using a user-based deployment.  Protecting and regularly rotating API secret keys requires a significant time commitment  Corporate devices cannot receive certificates when not connected to on-premises devices A proxy-based Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is chosen primarily for its ability to block unapproved applications and services. Here’s why:* Application and Service Control: Proxy-based CASBs can monitor and control the use of applications and services by inspecting traffic as it passes through the proxy. This allows the organization to enforce policies that block unapproved applications and services, ensuring compliance with security policies.* Visibility and Monitoring: By routing traffic through the proxy, the CASB can provide detailed visibility into user activities and data flows, enabling better monitoring and threat detection.* Real-Time Protection: Proxy-based CASBs can provide real-time protection against threats by analyzing and controlling traffic before it reaches the end user, thus preventing the use of risky applications and services.* References:* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl* NIST Special Publication 800-125: Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies* Gartner CASB Market GuideNO.26 A software engineer is creating a CI/CD pipeline to support the development of a web application The DevSecOps team is required to identify syntax errors Which of the following is the most relevant to the DevSecOps team’s task’  Static application security testing  Software composition analysis  Runtime application self-protection  Web application vulnerability scanning Static Application Security Testing (SAST) involves analyzing source code or compiled code for security vulnerabilities without executing the program. This method is well-suited for identifying syntax errors, coding standards violations, and potential security issues early in the development lifecycle.* A. Static application security testing (SAST): SAST tools analyze the source code to detect syntax errors, vulnerabilities, and other issues before the code is run. This is the most relevant task for the DevSecOps team to identify syntax errors and improve code quality.* B. Software composition analysis: This focuses on identifying vulnerabilities in open-source components and libraries used in the application but does not address syntax errors directly.* C. Runtime application self-protection (RASP): RASP involves monitoring and protecting applications during runtime, which does not help in identifying syntax errors during the development phase.* D. Web application vulnerability scanning: This involves scanning the running application for vulnerabilities but does not address syntax errors in the code.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on SAST* NIST SP 800-95, “Guide to Secure Web Services”Top of FormBottom of FormNO.27 Users are willing passwords on paper because of the number of passwords needed in an environment. Which of the following solutions is the best way to manage this situation and decrease risks?  Increasing password complexity to require 31 least 16 characters  implementing an SSO solution and integrating with applications  Requiring users to use an open-source password manager  Implementing an MFA solution to avoid reliance only on passwords Implementing a Single Sign-On (SSO) solution and integrating it with applications is the best way to manage the situation and decrease risks. Here’s why:* Reduced Password Fatigue: SSO allows users to log in once and gain access to multiple applications and systems without needing to remember and manage multiple passwords. This reduces the likelihood of users writing down passwords.* Improved Security: By reducing the number of passwords users need to manage, SSO decreases the attack surface and potential for password-related security breaches. It also allows for the implementation of stronger authentication methods.* User Convenience: SSO improves the user experience by simplifying the login process, which can lead to higher productivity and satisfaction.* References:* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl* NIST Special Publication 800-63B: Digital Identity Guidelines – Authentication and Lifecycle Management* OWASP Authentication Cheat SheetNO.28 A security officer received several complaints from users about excessive MPA push notifications at night The security team investigates and suspects malicious activities regarding user account authentication Which of the following is the best way for the security officer to restrict MI~A notifications”  Provisioning FID02 devices  Deploying a text message based on MFA  Enabling OTP via email  Configuring prompt-driven MFA Excessive MFA push notifications can be a sign of an attempted push notification attack, where attackers repeatedly send MFA prompts hoping the user will eventually approve one by mistake. To mitigate this:* A. Provisioning FIDO2 devices: While FIDO2 devices offer strong authentication, they may not be practical for all users and do not directly address the issue of excessive push notifications.* B. Deploying a text message-based MFA: SMS-based MFA can still be vulnerable to similar spamming attacks and phishing.* C. Enabling OTP via email: Email-based OTPs add another layer of security but do not directly solve the issue of excessive notifications.* D. Configuring prompt-driven MFA: This option allows users to respond to prompts in a secure manner, often including features like time-limited approval windows, additional verification steps, or requiring specific actions to approve. This can help prevent users from accidentally approving malicious attempts.Configuring prompt-driven MFA is the best solution to restrict unnecessary MFA notifications and improve security.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide* NIST SP 800-63B, “Digital Identity Guidelines”* “Multi-Factor Authentication: Best Practices” by MicrosoftNO.29 An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loos for more than 30 days The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days. Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained?  Configure a scheduled task nightly to save the logs  Configure event-based triggers to export the logs at a threshold.  Configure the SIEM to aggregate the logs  Configure a Python script to move the logs into a SQL database. To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes.References:* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention.* NIST Special Publication 800-92, “Guide to Computer Security Log Management”: Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis.* “Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation” by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.NO.30 The identity and access management team is sending logs to the SIEM for continuous monitoring. The deployed log collector is forwarding logs to the SIEM. However, only false positive alerts are being generated. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the inaccurate alerts?  The compute resources are insufficient to support the SIEM  The SIEM indexes are 100 large  The data is not being properly parsed  The retention policy is not property configured Proper parsing of data is crucial for the SIEM to accurately interpret and analyze the logs being forwarded by the log collector. If the data is not parsed correctly, the SIEM may misinterpret the logs, leading to false positives and inaccurate alerts. Ensuring that the log data is correctly parsed allows the SIEM to correlate and analyze the logs effectively, which is essential for accurate alerting and monitoring.NO.31 A company receives several complaints from customers regarding its website. An engineer implements a parser for the web server logs that generates the following output:which of the following should the company implement to best resolve the issue?  IDS  CDN  WAF  NAC The table indicates varying load times for users accessing the website from different geographic locations.Customers from Australia and India are experiencing significantly higher load times compared to those from the United States. This suggests that latency and geographical distance are affecting the website’s performance.* A. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): While an IDS is useful for detecting malicious activities, it does not address performance issues related to latency and geographical distribution of content.* B. CDN (Content Delivery Network): A CDN stores copies of the website’s content in multiple geographic locations. By serving content from the nearest server to the user, a CDN can significantly reduce load times and improve user experience globally.* C. WAF (Web Application Firewall): A WAF protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic but does not improve performance related to geographical latency.* D. NAC (Network Access Control): NAC solutions control access to network resources but are not designed to address web performance issues.Implementing a CDN is the best solution to resolve the performance issues observed in the log output.References:* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide* “CDN: Content Delivery Networks Explained” by Akamai Technologies* NIST SP 800-44, “Guidelines on Securing Public Web Servers” Loading … Regular Free Updates CAS-005 Dumps Real Exam Questions Test Engine: https://www.test4engine.com/CAS-005_exam-latest-braindumps.html --------------------------------------------------- Images: https://blog.test4engine.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif https://blog.test4engine.com/wp-content/plugins/watu/loading.gif --------------------------------------------------- --------------------------------------------------- Post date: 2024-10-21 13:37:46 Post date GMT: 2024-10-21 13:37:46 Post modified date: 2024-10-21 13:37:46 Post modified date GMT: 2024-10-21 13:37:46